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I thought the muscular guys were supposed to be right in these memes.
He is right. 1 approximates 1 to any accuracy you like.
Is it true to say that two numbers that are equal are also approximately equal?
I recall an anecdote about a mathematician being asked to clarify precisely what he meant by “a close approximation to three”. After thinking for a moment, he replied “any real number other than three”.
“Approximately equal” is just a superset of “equal” that also includes values “acceptably close” (using whatever definition you set for acceptable).
Unless you say something like:
a ≈ b ∧ a ≠ b
which implies a is close to b but not exactly equal to b, it’s safe to presume that a ≈ b includes the possibility that a = b.
Can I get a citation on this? Because it doesn’t pass the sniff test for me. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Approximation
Sure! See ISO-80000-2
Here’s a link: https://cdn.standards.iteh.ai/samples/64973/329519100abd447ea0d49747258d1094/ISO-80000-2-2019.pdf
ISO is not a source for mathematical definitions
It’s a definition from a well-respected global standards organization. Can you name a source that would provide a more authoritative definition than the ISO?
There’s no universally correct definition for what the ≈ symbol means, and if you write a paper or a proof or whatever, you’re welcome to define it to mean whatever you want in that context, but citing a professional standards organization seems like a pretty reliable way to find a commonly-accepted and understood definition.
Yes, informally in the sense that the error between the two numbers is “arbitrarily small”. Sometimes in introductory real analysis courses you see an exercise like: “prove if x, y are real numbers such that x=y, then for any real epsilon > 0 we have |x - y| < epsilon.” Which is a more rigorous way to say roughly the same thing. Going back to informality, if you give any required degree of accuracy (epsilon), then the error between x and y (which are the same number), is less than your required degree of accuracy
Nah. They are supposed to not care about stuff and just roll with it without any regrets.
It’s just like the wojak crying with the mask on, but not crying behind it.
There’s plenty of cases of memes where the giga chad is just plainly wrong, but they just don’t care. But it’s not supposed to be in a troll way. The giga chad applies what it believes in. If you want a troll, there’s troll face, who speak with the confidence of a giga chad, but know he is bullshiting
0.9<overbar.> is literally equal to 1
There’s a Real Analysis proof for it and everything.
Basically boils down to
- If 0.(9) != 1 then there must be some value between 0.(9) and 1.
- We know such a number cannot exist, because for any given discrete value (say 0.999…9) there is a number (0.999…99) that is between that discrete value and 0.(9)
- Therefore, no value exists between 0.(9) and 1.
- So 0.(9) = 1
Even simpler: 1 = 3 * 1/3
1/3 =0.333333…
1/3 + 1/3 + 1/3 = 0.99999999… = 1
Even simpler
0.99999999… = 1
But you’re just restating the premise here. You haven’t proven the two are equal.
1/3 =0.333333…
This step
1/3 + 1/3 + 1/3 = 0.99999999…
And this step
Aren’t well-defined. You’re relying on division short-hand rather than a real proof.
ELI5
Mostly boils down to the pedantry of explaining why 1/3 = 0.(3) and what 0.(3) actually means.
the explanation (not proof tbf) that actually satisfies my brain is that we’re dealing with infinite repeating digits here, which is what allows something that on the surface doesn’t make sense to actually be true.
Infinite repeating digits produce what is understood as a Limit. And Limits are fundamental to proof-based mathematics, when your goal is to demonstrate an infinite sum or series has a finite total.
That actually makes sense, thank you.
This is why we can’t have nice things like dependable protection from fall damage while riding a boat in Minecraft.
Remember when US politicians argued about declaring Pi to 3?
Would have been funny seeing the world go boink in about a week.
I prefer my pi to be in duodecimal anyway. 3.184809493B should get you to where you need to go.
Some software can be pretty resilient. I ended up watching this video here recently about running doom using different values for the constant pi that was pretty nifty.
Reals are just point cores of dressed Cauchy sequences of naturals (think of it as a continually constructed set of narrowing intervals “homing in” on the real being constructed). The intervals shrink at the same rate generally.
1!=0.999 iff we can find an n, such that the intervals no longer overlap at that n. This would imply a layer of absolute infinite thinness has to exist, and so we have reached a contradiction as it would have to have a width smaller than every positive real (there is no smallest real >0).
Therefore 0.999…=1.
However, we can argue that 1 is not identity to 0.999… quite easily as they are not the same thing.
This does argue that this only works in an extensional setting (which is the norm for most mathematics).
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Thanks for the bedtime reading!
I mostly deal with foundations of analysis, so this could be handy.
Are we still doing this 0.999… thing? Why, is it that attractive?
I wish computers could calculate infinity
Meh, close enough.
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I think the … here is meant to represent repeating digits.
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Mathematics is built on axioms that have nothing to do with numbers yet. That means that things like decimal numbers need definitions. And in the definition of decimals is literally included that if you have only nines at a certain point behind the dot, it is the same as increasing the decimal in front of the first nine by one.
That’s not how it’s defined. 0.99… is the limit of a sequence and it is precisely 1. 0.99… is the summation of infinite number of numbers and we don’t know how to do that if it isn’t defined. (0.9 + 0.09 + 0.009…) It is defined by the limit of the partial sums, 0.9, 0.99, 0.999… The limit of this sequence is 1. Sorry if this came out rude. It is more of a general comment.
I study mathematics at university and I remember it being in the definition, but since it follows from the sum’s limit anyways it probably was just there for claritie’s sake. So I guess we’re both right…
0.(9)=0.(3)*3=1/3*3=1
Even the hyperreal numbers *R, which include infinitesimals, define 1 == .999…
The only sources I trust are the ones that come from my dreams
Sort of how 0.0000001 = 0
No, not like that.
I can honestly say I learned something from the comment section. I was always taught the .9 repeating was not equal to 1 but separated by imaginary i … Or infinitely close to 1 without becoming 1.
