“Too many” kinda sounds right to my ear because beans is plural, but the second logically seems right because its served by volume and is not ‘countable’ as ordinary (non-destroyed) beans might be.

  • robolemmy@lemmy.world
    link
    fedilink
    English
    arrow-up
    59
    ·
    21 days ago

    When it comes to refried beans, “too many” or “too much” are both incorrect. The correct construction is “may I have some more please?”

  • BearOfaTime@lemm.ee
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    21
    ·
    edit-2
    21 days ago

    Since the word “beans” is plural, and countable, it’s “many”.

    “Many” is for things that are countable, “much” is for things that aren’t. e.g. Water - you’d say “too much water” but you wouldn’t say “too much cups of water” but “too many cups of water”.

    Though “refried beans” is a thing on its own, I could go either way. Like if you were spooning beans onto my plate, I may say “too much!”.

    How’s that for a confident, clear answer? 😆

    • gordon@lemmy.world
      link
      fedilink
      English
      arrow-up
      4
      ·
      21 days ago

      So you’d normally say “that’s too much!” in which case the subject “that” is plural and countable so therefore “much” would be correct.

      Otherwise you should say “you have given me too many refried beans!” since the beans are volumetric and not countable entities.

    • edric@lemm.ee
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      3
      ·
      21 days ago

      I wouldn’t consider beans countable, and would put it in the same category as rice or noodles. So I’d say “too much” is the correct term.

      • SLVRDRGN@lemmy.world
        link
        fedilink
        arrow-up
        2
        ·
        21 days ago

        One noodle/ a bowl of noodles. Or one bean, a bowl of beans.

        But you wouldn’t say: one rice. You’d say one grain of rice. So it’s like rice is automatically a mass of many individual bits/grains of rice. Beans are not that way, they’re countable.

  • SkaraBrae@lemmy.world
    link
    fedilink
    English
    arrow-up
    15
    ·
    21 days ago

    It depends on whether you’re referring to individual refried beans or the dish ‘refried beans’ as a whole.

    If it’s the former, it would be ‘too many’ (individual) refried beans.

    If it is the latter, it would be ‘too much’ (of) refried beans… Unless you had multiple servings, in which case it would be ‘too many’ (servings of) refried beans.

    That is my opinion: as such it is subject to change should further information come to light.

  • finley@lemm.ee
    link
    fedilink
    English
    arrow-up
    15
    ·
    edit-2
    21 days ago

    “Too many” if you’re referring to the beans themselves. “Too much” if you’re referring to refried beans as a dish you have been served.

    Edit: just remember: “too many” as reference to a quantity of things, “too much” as reference to a volume or a quantity/amount of a thing. In this case, the “thing” was the dish being served (refried beans). Since it was the dish, itself, being considered (not each individual bean) the phrase was being dealt with, grammatically, as one whole unit— a dish that was served to you, of which you had too much.

    • toynbee@lemmy.world
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      3
      ·
      21 days ago

      Your point is fair, but I respectfully disagree. “Beans” being plural makes me want to use “many.” “I had too many of the refried beans” parses fine for me.

      • ouRKaoS@lemmy.today
        link
        fedilink
        arrow-up
        1
        ·
        21 days ago

        Counter question:

        Would you also use “many” for mashed potatoes, since potatoes is plural?

        • toynbee@lemmy.world
          link
          fedilink
          arrow-up
          1
          ·
          20 days ago

          I don’t think I’ve ever been asked to quantify mashed potatoes in such a way, but after reflecting for a moment, yes. Thank you for an interesting question.

    • xia@lemmy.sdf.orgOP
      link
      fedilink
      English
      arrow-up
      3
      ·
      21 days ago

      NGL… I kinda want to tell someone to reduce their beanage without any context, and walk away.

    • Asafum@feddit.nl
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      6
      ·
      21 days ago

      I would think that would be “too much” because all the potatoes don’t matter at that point, it’s one entity. There are no more individual potatoes, we are Borg mashed potatoes!

  • jordanlund@lemmy.world
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    4
    ·
    21 days ago

    “Too many refried beans”
    “Too much refried bean”

    Same for scrambled eggs.

    “Too many scrambled eggs”
    “Too much scrambled egg”

  • folekaule@lemmy.world
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    3
    ·
    21 days ago

    Since refried beans is not countable, I vote for “too much”.

    Example:

    • I’m gassy because I had too much refried beans
    • I am gassy because I had too many burritos

    Or like someone else suggested, make the noun singular and call them “refried bean paste”. This will probably raise more eyebrows than much/many confusion, though.

  • feedum_sneedson@lemmy.world
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    3
    ·
    21 days ago

    Depends whether you consider the noun countable or not. Too many peas, too much mashed potato. It’s purely semantics, I think we can consider refried beans an edge case.